" As a rule, no doubt, if A touches B, B touches A... Yet, if A moves B, it is possible - a we express it - for A 'merely to touch' B, and that which touches need not touch a something which touches it. Nevertheless it is commonly supposed that 'touching' must be reciprocal."
I'm just trying to figure out if this is really revolutionary and brilliant or if Aristotle was just paid to say stuff. Just thought I'd share my struggles.